Nursing Elites

1. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.

4. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with DKA as it may indicate worsening hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. While elevated glucose and low bicarbonate are characteristic of DKA, hyperkalemia poses a higher immediate risk. Serum sodium within the normal range is not typically a primary concern in DKA.

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