Nursing Elites

1. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

2. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has been combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, and magnesium supplements along with aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
• B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
• C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
• D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing intervention is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms of recurrent vomiting, combative behavior, and the medications (vitamins, calcium, magnesium supplements, and aspirin) taken by the teen suggest a possible overdose or serious adverse reaction. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is crucial to assess and manage any potential toxicity or adverse effects. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending withholding food and fluids for 2 hours (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Suggesting slow and deep breathing (Choice D) is not appropriate in this urgent situation requiring immediate medical attention.

3. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the postoperative unit after subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Total calcium 5.0 mg/dL.
• B. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L.
• C. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L.
• D. Serum glucose 90 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A calcium level of 5.0 mg/dL is critically low and could indicate hypoparathyroidism, a possible complication after thyroidectomy. Low calcium levels can lead to tetany, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D fall within the normal range and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status in a client with cirrhosis and associated ascites and jaundice are indicative of hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. This condition can progress rapidly and lead to coma if not addressed promptly. Peripheral edema (choice A) and increased abdominal girth (choice C) are common manifestations of fluid retention in cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Yellowing of the skin (choice D) is a classic sign of jaundice, which is already known in this client and may not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Low urine output
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.

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