the nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the nurse mon
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms’ indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. High serum ammonia levels can lead to altered mental status, confusion, and even coma. Serum albumin (choice A) is often decreased in cirrhosis but does not require immediate intervention. Serum bilirubin (choice B) elevation is expected in cirrhosis and may not require immediate intervention unless very high. Serum sodium (choice D) within the given range is generally acceptable and does not require immediate intervention.

4. A 75-year-old female client is admitted to the orthopedic unit following an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. On the second postoperative day, the client becomes confused and repeatedly asks the nurse where she is. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of alcohol use. In this scenario, obtaining the history of alcohol use is crucial as it could indicate withdrawal, which might explain the client's confusion. Alcohol withdrawal can lead to symptoms such as confusion, agitation, and disorientation. While knowing the current medication list (choice B) is important for overall patient care, in this case, alcohol withdrawal is a more likely cause of the confusion. Baseline cognitive status (choice C) is valuable for comparison but may not directly explain the sudden confusion. Family history of dementia (choice D) is less relevant in this acute situation compared to the potential immediate impact of alcohol withdrawal.

5. After checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630, what action should be implemented?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering insulin aspart (rapid-acting insulin) is the appropriate action to manage the elevated glucose level of 1630. Choice A, notifying the healthcare provider, is not the immediate action needed for this glucose level. Choice C, giving an IV bolus of Dextrose 50%, would exacerbate hyperglycemia instead of treating it. Choice D, performing quality control on the glucometer, is not relevant to the management of the patient's glucose level at this time.

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