Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

• A. 0.35 ml
• B. 0.40 ml
• C. 0.50 ml
• D. 0.45 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.

2. A client who is post-op day 1 after abdominal surgery reports pain at the incision site. The nurse notes the presence of a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the dressing and document the findings. It is important to monitor the incision site closely after surgery, especially when there is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. Reinforcing the dressing helps maintain cleanliness and pressure on the wound. Documenting the findings is crucial for tracking the client's progress and alerting healthcare providers if necessary. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not be needed if the current dressing is intact. Removing the dressing (Choice C) can increase the risk of contamination. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first step for minor drainage on post-op day 1.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
• D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.

4. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
• B. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
• C. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• D. Contact the client's obstetrician

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.

5. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?

• A. Maintain cold packs on the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infants.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.

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