Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

• A. 0.35 ml
• B. 0.40 ml
• C. 0.50 ml
• D. 0.45 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.

2. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?

• A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
• B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
• C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
• D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.

4. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
• B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
• C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
• D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia and is receiving IV antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Client reports less chest pain.
• B. Client's white blood cell count is decreasing.
• C. Client has a decreased respiratory rate.
• D. Client has clear breath sounds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clear breath sounds indicate that the pneumonia is resolving and the treatment is effective. Breath sounds are often muffled or crackling in pneumonia due to the presence of fluid or inflammation in the lungs. Clear breath sounds suggest that the air is moving freely through the lungs, indicating improvement. Choices A, B, and C are less specific indicators of pneumonia resolution. While less chest pain and a decreasing white blood cell count can be positive signs, they are not as direct in indicating the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment as the presence of clear breath sounds. A decreased respiratory rate could be seen in various conditions and may not solely indicate the resolution of pneumonia.

Similar Questions