HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention for a client receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube?
- A. Auscultate the client's lungs for breath sounds
- B. Check the client's blood glucose level
- C. Monitor the client's bowel sounds
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is crucial for clients receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube to prevent aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Auscultating the client's lungs for breath sounds (choice A) is important but not as urgent as preventing aspiration. Checking the client's blood glucose level (choice B) and monitoring bowel sounds (choice C) are also essential aspects of care for a client receiving enteral feedings, but they do not take precedence over preventing aspiration.
2. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?
- A. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
- C. Downward movement of diaphragm with inspiration
- D. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
- B. Temperature of 101.3°F
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- D. Heart rate of 88 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.
4. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
- B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube
- D. Prepare the client for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles in a client with COPD indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests that the patient is struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not critically low, while a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to underlying conditions like pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention as the use of accessory muscles does.
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