HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention for a client receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube?
- A. Auscultate the client's lungs for breath sounds
- B. Check the client's blood glucose level
- C. Monitor the client's bowel sounds
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is crucial for clients receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube to prevent aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Auscultating the client's lungs for breath sounds (choice A) is important but not as urgent as preventing aspiration. Checking the client's blood glucose level (choice B) and monitoring bowel sounds (choice C) are also essential aspects of care for a client receiving enteral feedings, but they do not take precedence over preventing aspiration.
2. A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours
- B. Insert an indwelling catheter
- C. Use adult diapers to manage incontinence
- D. Restrict fluids in the evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours. This approach, known as scheduled toileting, is essential in managing incontinence in clients with cognitive impairments like Alzheimer's disease. By providing regular assistance to the client to use the commode, the nurse can help maintain continence and reduce accidents. Inserting an indwelling catheter (Choice B) should be avoided if possible to prevent the risk of urinary tract infections. Using adult diapers (Choice C) should be considered a last resort and not the initial intervention. Restricting fluids in the evening (Choice D) is not appropriate as it may lead to dehydration and other complications.
3. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
- B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
- C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
- D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.
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