Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with DKA as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level is a key indicator of this acid-base imbalance. Elevated serum glucose levels are expected in DKA but are managed through insulin therapy. Serum potassium levels can fluctuate in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but a value of 5.5 mEq/L is not as immediately concerning as metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the most critical finding in this scenario is the low serum bicarbonate level.

2. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
• C. Tidal volume of 300 ml
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A tidal volume of 300 ml is concerning in a client with ARDS on mechanical ventilation because it indicates hypoventilation, which can lead to inadequate gas exchange and worsening respiratory status. This finding requires immediate intervention to optimize ventilation and oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. An oxygen saturation of 90% may be acceptable depending on the client's baseline condition and the target range set by the healthcare provider. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but may not be immediately alarming. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require urgent intervention.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis because it may indicate an underlying infection that requires immediate attention. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of systemic infection, which can quickly worsen in individuals with compromised renal function. Monitoring for infection is crucial in ESRD patients to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as immediately concerning in this context. While variations in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate should be monitored, they are not as indicative of a potentially severe issue as an unexplained fever in this scenario.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

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