Nursing Elites

1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

3. When a male Korean-American client looks away when asked by the nurse to describe his problem, what is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Ask for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter.
• B. Establish indirect eye contact with the client.
• C. Allow several minutes for the client to respond.
• D. Repeat the question using simpler language.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the best initial nursing action is to allow several minutes for the client to respond. This approach respects the cultural norms of the client, as in some cultures, direct eye contact may be perceived as disrespectful or intrusive. By giving the client time to gather his thoughts and respond at his own pace, the nurse promotes effective communication and demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Asking for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter (Choice A) may be necessary for further communication but is not the best initial action. Establishing indirect eye contact (Choice B) may still make the client uncomfortable. Repeating the question using simpler language (Choice D) may not address the underlying cultural aspect affecting the client's response.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in this population. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of sepsis, which requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate threat to the client's well-being in the context of preparing for hemodialysis.

5. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.

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