HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has become combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
- B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
- C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
- D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms described, including recurrent vomiting and becoming combative after taking vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin, indicate a potential overdose or a serious condition. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation in the emergency room is crucial. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending to withhold food and fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate in this urgent situation. Suggesting deep breathing (Choice D) does not address the seriousness of the symptoms and the need for immediate medical attention.
2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high and should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is elevated in renal dysfunction but not the most critical value to report before hemodialysis. Serum calcium (Choice C) and serum bicarbonate (Choice D) levels are within normal limits and are not immediate concerns before hemodialysis.
3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia and is receiving IV antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Client reports less chest pain.
- B. Client's white blood cell count is decreasing.
- C. Client has a decreased respiratory rate.
- D. Client has clear breath sounds.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clear breath sounds indicate that the pneumonia is resolving and the treatment is effective. Breath sounds are often muffled or crackling in pneumonia due to the presence of fluid or inflammation in the lungs. Clear breath sounds suggest that the air is moving freely through the lungs, indicating improvement. Choices A, B, and C are less specific indicators of pneumonia resolution. While less chest pain and a decreasing white blood cell count can be positive signs, they are not as direct in indicating the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment as the presence of clear breath sounds. A decreased respiratory rate could be seen in various conditions and may not solely indicate the resolution of pneumonia.
4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
- D. Assess the client's neurological status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
- B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
- C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
- D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.
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