HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A female client is admitted with end-stage pulmonary disease, is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants 'no heroic measures' taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Ask the client to discuss 'do not resuscitate' with her healthcare provider
- B. Document the client's wishes in her medical record
- C. Ask the client to sign an advance directive
- D. Place a 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order in the client's chart
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to ask the client to discuss 'do not resuscitate' (DNR) wishes with her healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client makes informed decisions regarding her care. While documenting the client's wishes in her medical record is essential, it is crucial that the client discusses these wishes with the healthcare provider to understand the implications and have the DNR order legally documented. Asking the client to sign an advance directive is premature without a detailed discussion with the healthcare provider. Placing a 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order in the client's chart should only be done after the client has discussed and agreed upon this decision with the healthcare provider.
2. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Slide the stethoscope across the sternum.
- B. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site.
- C. Listen with the bell at the same location.
- D. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, the nurse should listen at the same location using the bell first. This allows for the accurate identification of low-pitched sounds. Moving the stethoscope across the sternum (Choice A) or to the mitral site (Choice B) would not be the initial actions to assess for an S3 heart sound. Observing the cardiac telemetry monitor (Choice D) is not relevant for assessing S3 heart sounds, as it does not provide direct auscultation of heart sounds.
3. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
- B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
- C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
- D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In clients receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant for assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical due to the potential adverse effects of elevated potassium levels in CKD patients on this therapy.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.
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