Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.

2. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the side rails in an up position.
• B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
• C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
• D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the side rails in an up position first. This action is essential to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Assisting the UAP in turning the client (Choice B) is not the immediate priority. Providing instructions on bed-making techniques (Choice C) can wait until the safety of the client is ensured. Asking the client if they are comfortable (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

3. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
• B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
• C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
• D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

5. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse he will drink plenty of dairy products to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea.
• B. Suggest that the client also plans to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort.
• C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream.
• D. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate a duodenal ulcer. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. Choice A is incorrect because switching to decaffeinated coffee and tea does not address the issue of avoiding milk and cream products. Choice B is incorrect because while eating frequent small meals can help with discomfort, it does not address the specific issue of avoiding milk and cream. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need to avoid milk and cream products.

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