Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?

• A. Maintain cold packs on the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infants.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client reports pain at the incision site and a small amount of purulent drainage is noted. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider. Purulent drainage at the incision site is concerning as it may indicate an infection. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of infection. Reinforcing the dressing and documenting findings (Choice B) is important but should be preceded by notifying the healthcare provider. Removing the dressing and assessing the incision site (Choice C) may disturb the area and should be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

5. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum triglycerides
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should monitor serum triglycerides closely. Acute pancreatitis can lead to fat malabsorption, making the client susceptible to hypertriglyceridemia. Monitoring serum triglycerides is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperlipidemia. While monitoring serum potassium, glucose, and calcium levels is also essential in various conditions, in this scenario, the primary concern is the risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia due to fat malabsorption.

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