HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.
2. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?
- A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
- B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
- C. Administer the medications as prescribed
- D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.
3. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?
- A. Low bioavailability
- B. Rapid onset of action
- C. Short half-life
- D. Narrow therapeutic index
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.
4. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess for this client?
- A. Assess distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema
- B. Determine the client's level of orientation and cognition
- C. Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history
- D. Ask the client about exposure to environmental heat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history. The client's presentation is indicative of digitalis toxicity, commonly associated with medications like digoxin (Lanoxin) used in heart failure treatment. Understanding the client's medication history, particularly the use of digoxin, is crucial in confirming and managing digitalis toxicity. Assessing distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema (Choice A) may be relevant in heart failure but are not the priority in this case. Determining the client's level of orientation and cognition (Choice B) and asking about exposure to environmental heat (Choice D) are not directly related to the client's current symptoms and are less pertinent in this scenario.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.
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