the nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease ckd who is receiving erythropoietin therapy which laboratory value should be closely monit
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In clients receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant for assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical due to the potential adverse effects of elevated potassium levels in CKD patients on this therapy.

2. The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.

3. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.

4. The nurse is caring for a client following a myelogram. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complaint of headaches and stiff neck. Headaches and stiff neck following a myelogram may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak or other complications that require prompt medical attention. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may warrant monitoring and intervention, they are not as indicative of a potentially serious complication as the symptoms described in choice A.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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