a client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mgdl and is unresponsive which intervention should the nurse implement f
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HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning finding in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates worsening pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. This symptom suggests that the client is experiencing significant difficulty in breathing and inadequate oxygenation, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is often seen in right-sided heart failure, while peripheral edema (Choice B) and crackles in the lungs (Choice D) are common manifestations of left-sided heart failure but are not as acutely concerning as severe shortness of breath, which can rapidly progress to respiratory distress if not addressed promptly.

3. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.

4. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

5. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.

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