Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

• A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
• B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
• D. Initiate fall precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.

2. A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.
• B. Discontinue the medication and follow up with a healthcare provider.
• C. Increase fluid intake and monitor urine color.
• D. Continue taking the medication and report any changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.' The symptoms described by the client, including nausea, dark-colored urine, and yellowish skin, are indicative of possible liver toxicity, a serious side effect of pioglitazone. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the condition and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B advises discontinuing the medication without seeking immediate medical assistance, which could delay necessary treatment; C focuses solely on increasing fluid intake and monitoring urine color, overlooking the urgency of the situation; and D suggests continuing the medication when prompt evaluation is crucial in this scenario.

3. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?

• A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
• B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
• C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
• D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.

5. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum triglycerides
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should monitor serum triglycerides closely. Acute pancreatitis can lead to fat malabsorption, making the client susceptible to hypertriglyceridemia. Monitoring serum triglycerides is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperlipidemia. While monitoring serum potassium, glucose, and calcium levels is also essential in various conditions, in this scenario, the primary concern is the risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia due to fat malabsorption.

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