a client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion ataxia and diplopia which nursing intervention is a priority for this client
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.

2. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit, screaming 'THE BABY IS COMING.' Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the perineum is the priority action for the nurse in this situation. It allows the nurse to assess the stage of labor, determine the urgency of the situation, and provide immediate assistance if the baby is indeed about to be delivered. Preparing the delivery room and calling the obstetrician can follow once the nurse has assessed the situation. Administering pain relief may not be the immediate priority when the baby is coming.

3. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis and severe ascites has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L and is receiving 3% saline IV. Which assessment finding indicates that the nurse should notify the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate indicates fluid overload, which can be exacerbated by hypertonic saline. This condition can worsen the client's respiratory status and lead to further complications. The other options do not directly relate to the fluid overload caused by the hypertonic saline. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L is within a normal range for treatment. A headache and a blood pressure of 140/90 are not specific indicators of worsening condition related to hypertonic saline. Shortness of breath and an O2 saturation of 92% could be related to other factors in a client with liver cirrhosis and ascites.

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