Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain a blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

2. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered an hour ago?

• A. Maintain cold packs to the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infant.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the immediate postpartum period to detect postpartum hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication. Monitoring these parameters allows for early identification of excessive bleeding, enabling prompt intervention. While maintaining cold packs to the perineum, assessing pain levels, and observing for appropriate interaction with the infant are important aspects of postpartum care, assessing fundal tone and lochia flow takes precedence due to its direct relevance to identifying and managing a potential emergency situation.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.

4. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, 'My son has athlete's foot. I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement.' What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Antibiotics take two weeks to become effective against fungal infections like athlete's foot.
• B. Continue using the ointment for a full week, even after the symptoms disappear.
• C. Applying too much ointment can reduce its effectiveness. Apply a thin layer to prevent maceration.
• D. Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Athlete's foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal infection, not a bacterial infection that would respond to antibiotics. The primary management involves keeping the feet well-ventilated, dry after bathing, and wearing clean socks to prevent moisture buildup, which promotes fungal growth. Using an antibiotic ointment like triple antibiotic ointment is not effective for treating athlete's foot. Therefore, the nurse should advise the mother to stop using the antibiotic ointment and focus on promoting proper foot hygiene to manage the fungal infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the fungal nature of athlete's foot and the ineffectiveness of antibiotic ointments in its treatment.

5. An adult male who fell from a roof and fractured his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Weak palpable distal pulses
• B. Pain at the fracture site
• C. Mild swelling of the leg
• D. Bruising around the fracture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a fractured femur, weak palpable distal pulses can indicate compromised circulation to the lower extremity. This finding suggests a potential vascular compromise that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications like compartment syndrome or ischemia. Pain at the fracture site, mild swelling of the leg, and bruising around the fracture site are expected following such an injury and surgical stabilization, and while they should be monitored, they do not require immediate intervention like addressing compromised circulation.

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