a client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mgdl and is unresponsive which intervention should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.

2. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a complex handwashing ritual she performs daily that takes two hours or longer to complete. She worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area. This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client’s handwashing ritual is a compulsion, a repetitive behavior driven by the need to reduce anxiety associated with an obsession. In this case, the client's need to wash her hands excessively stems from an obsession with cleanliness, leading to the compulsive behavior of extensive handwashing. 'Addiction' (Choice A) involves a dependence on a substance or behavior, not related to this scenario. 'Phobia' (Choice B) is an intense fear of a specific object or situation, not applicable here. 'Obsession' (Choice D) refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, while the handwashing behavior in this case is the compulsive action taken to alleviate the anxiety related to the obsession.

3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

4. A preschooler with constipation needs to increase fiber intake. Which snack suggestion should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oatmeal cookies are the best snack suggestion for a preschooler with constipation needing to increase fiber intake. Oatmeal is high in fiber, which helps relieve constipation. Cheese sticks, yogurt, and apple slices are not as high in fiber content as oatmeal and may not be as effective in addressing the constipation issue in this scenario.

5. The nurse is administering an IV medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside is crucial in case the client experiences anaphylaxis during the infusion. While staying with the client throughout the infusion (Choice A) is important, having immediate access to emergency equipment takes priority in this situation. Obtaining the client's allergy history (Choice C) and asking about past allergic reactions to medications (Choice D) are relevant but do not address the immediate need for emergency intervention in case of anaphylaxis.

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