HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 50 ml/hour
- B. 25 ml/hour
- C. 75 ml/hour
- D. 100 ml/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, convert 1 mg to 1,000 mcg (1 mg = 1,000 mcg) and then use the formula D/H x Q, where D is the desired dose, H is the dose on hand, and Q is the quantity of solution. In this case, it would be 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75 ml/hour. Choice A (50 ml/hour), Choice B (25 ml/hour), and Choice D (100 ml/hour) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate of 75 ml/hour.
2. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
- B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
- C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
- D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
- D. Obtain a sputum culture.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is the initial priority when managing an exacerbation of COPD. In COPD exacerbations, the primary concern is hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange. Administering oxygen helps to improve oxygenation and prevent further complications. Elevating the head of the bed can aid in breathing comfort but is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygen supply. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture is relevant for identifying pathogens but is not the immediate priority in addressing hypoxemia.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing. This finding is concerning as it may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but not as immediately concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) may be present in pneumonia but are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the increased work of breathing shown by the use of accessory muscles.
5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats/minute. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
- B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
- C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement in this situation is to assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present. This helps to confirm the accuracy of the reported weak pulse. In this scenario, it is crucial to involve a licensed nurse to further assess the situation and provide a more comprehensive evaluation. Inaccurate pulse readings can lead to inappropriate interventions or unnecessary alarm. Instructing the UAP to count the apical pulse may not address the accuracy issue. Checking capillary refill time is not directly related to confirming the weak pulse rate. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately may be premature without confirming the accuracy of the pulse reading first.
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