HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
- D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.
2. A client who is at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. After a 6-gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
- B. Blood pressure of 138/88
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Temperature of 99.8°F
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour indicates that the kidneys are being affected by the high level of magnesium sulfate. This decreased urine output can lead to magnesium toxicity and impaired kidney function. Blood pressure of 138/88 is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate concern related to magnesium sulfate. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal, and a temperature of 99.8°F is slightly elevated but not a priority in the context of severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate administration.
3. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
- B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
- C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
- D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.
4. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?
- A. Antihypertensives
- B. Anti-infectives
- C. Antihistamines
- D. Anticholesteremics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.
5. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
- B. Have the client sign the consent form.
- C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
- D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.
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