Nursing Elites

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

2. A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Initiate contact isolation.
• B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
• C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
• D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a wound swab for culture and sensitivity is the most important intervention in this situation. It helps identify the presence of infection in the postoperative wound that could be causing the elevated temperature. By obtaining a wound swab, healthcare providers can determine the appropriate treatment needed to address any infection. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case. Assessing temperature (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the underlying cause of the elevated temperature. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.

3. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

• A. Explain how to use communication tools.
• B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques.
• C. Encourage self-care and independence.
• D. Demonstrate how to clean the tracheostomy site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is to teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which is critical for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being. While communication tools, self-care, and cleaning the tracheostomy site are important aspects of care, ensuring proper suctioning techniques is crucial for preventing complications and ensuring the client's safety.

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