HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer thiamine as prescribed. Administering thiamine is crucial in clients with a history of alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) and initiating fall precautions (choice D) are important interventions, but administering thiamine takes precedence due to the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy.
2. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?
- A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
- B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
- C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.
3. A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Enlarged spleen
- B. Increased abdominal girth
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Confusion and altered mental status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.
4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.
5. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
- B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
- C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
- D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.
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