a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted with an exacerbation which assessment finding is most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the first priority in managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy to facilitate airway clearance. This intervention helps to moisten secretions, making them easier to clear. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial, but increasing humidity should be addressed first. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) and performing deep suctioning (Choice D) are interventions that can be considered after addressing humidity if necessary, but they are not the initial priority.

3. A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to review the client's medication list for potential interactions. This step is crucial as it can help identify any medications that might be contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. Checking the current blood glucose level (choice A) is important but not the first action to address the ongoing issue. Assessing the client's diet and medication adherence (choice B) is also important, but reviewing the medication list should be the initial step to rule out any drug-related causes. Obtaining a hemoglobin A1c level (choice D) is a valuable assessment but may not address the immediate need to identify potential medication interactions.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of hypertension who is currently taking a diuretic. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can result from diuretic use and can lead to serious complications such as irregular heart rhythms. Monitoring and correcting potassium levels are crucial in preventing adverse cardiac events. The other options, though important, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the low potassium level.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl. In a client with ESRD receiving hemodialysis, serum creatinine should be closely monitored. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A), serum potassium levels (Choice B), and serum sodium levels (Choice D) is also important in clients with ESRD, but the most crucial indicator of kidney function in this case is serum creatinine.

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