Nursing Elites

1. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
• C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.

2. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?

• A. Egg whites, toast, and coffee.
• B. Bran muffin, mixed fruits, and orange juice.
• C. Granola and grapefruit juice.
• D. Bagel with jelly and skim milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Bagel with jelly and skim milk.' This choice includes skim milk, a good source of calcium, which is important for osteoporosis management. It also avoids foods that inhibit calcium absorption. Osteoporosis dietary management emphasizes increased calcium intake and reducing foods that hinder calcium absorption. Choice A only provides proteins but lacks calcium. Choice B offers fruits and a bran muffin, but it lacks a good source of calcium. Choice C has granola but misses a significant source of calcium.

3. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Suggest the use of alternative sources of protein such as dairy products and nuts.
• B. Encourage the client to eat smaller, more frequent meals.
• C. Offer nutritional supplements between meals.
• D. Discuss the possibility of appetite stimulants with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.

5. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.

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