Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
• D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

4. The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first?

• A. A client with congestive heart failure who reports a 3-pound weight gain in the last two days
• B. A client with a healing surgical wound
• C. A client requiring wound dressing change
• D. A client with stable vital signs needing medication administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 3-pound weight gain in two days indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. This could be a sign of decompensation in the client's condition, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate threat to the client's health and can be addressed after assessing the client with congestive heart failure.

5. The nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Wheezing heard on expiration
• B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• C. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• D. Nasal flaring with sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nasal flaring with sternal retractions indicates severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old with bronchiolitis, requiring immediate intervention. Nasal flaring and sternal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing and decreased air movement, indicating the child is struggling to breathe. Wheezing on expiration (Choice A) is common in bronchiolitis but may not require immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 90% (Choice B) is low but may not be the most critical finding in this case. A respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute (Choice C) is elevated but alone may not indicate the need for immediate intervention as much as nasal flaring and sternal retractions.

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