HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
- B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
- C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
- D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.
2. While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Attempt to distract the client with general conversation
- B. Administer a pain medication
- C. Continue with the procedure while reassuring the client
- D. Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should attempt to distract the client with general conversation. Distracting the client can help reduce anxiety and make the procedure less stressful. Administering pain medication (choice B) is not appropriate as the client's discomfort is related to anxiety, not physical pain. Continuing with the procedure while reassuring the client (choice C) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Stopping the procedure and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this point since the client's anxiety can be managed by attempting to distract him.
3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Fever of 100.4°F
- B. Positive Chvostek's sign
- C. Increased joint pain
- D. Swelling in the joints
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which requires immediate intervention as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Fever, increased joint pain, and swelling in the joints are common symptoms in clients with rheumatoid arthritis but do not require immediate intervention like addressing hypocalcemia.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I will take my medication in the morning before breakfast.’
- B. ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’
- C. ‘I should change positions slowly to avoid dizziness.’
- D. ‘I should avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication.’
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.
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