HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
- D. Administer morphine as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. In COPD exacerbation, the priority is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body's tissues. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the first intervention needed in this situation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important in COPD exacerbation but come after ensuring proper oxygenation.
3. In a client with heart failure receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix), which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and concerning in a client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications. The other options, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, blood glucose of 200 mg/dl, and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl, are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks to the client in this scenario.
4. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered an hour ago?
- A. Maintain cold packs to the perineum for 24 hours.
- B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
- C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infant.
- D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the immediate postpartum period to detect postpartum hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication. Monitoring these parameters allows for early identification of excessive bleeding, enabling prompt intervention. While maintaining cold packs to the perineum, assessing pain levels, and observing for appropriate interaction with the infant are important aspects of postpartum care, assessing fundal tone and lochia flow takes precedence due to its direct relevance to identifying and managing a potential emergency situation.
5. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access