Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Positive urine ketones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with DKA, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis, which is reflected by a low serum bicarbonate level. Correcting the low serum bicarbonate is crucial to normalize the metabolic acidosis and improve the client's condition. While elevated serum glucose (choice A) and urine ketones (choice D) are characteristic of DKA, addressing the metabolic acidosis takes precedence. Serum potassium (choice B) levels may also need monitoring and management, but correcting the acidosis is the priority to prevent complications like cardiovascular collapse.

3. In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Watery diarrhea. This finding is the most important to report as it may indicate Clostridioides difficile infection, a severe side effect of antibiotic therapy. Clostridioides difficile infection can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are common side effects of linezolid but are not as critical as watery diarrhea in this context.

4. A client with a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis is receiving a corticosteroid. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Increased joint pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure (140/90 mmHg) is a significant finding that the nurse should report immediately. Hypertension can be a severe side effect of corticosteroid therapy, especially in clients with preexisting conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. It requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events. The other options, while important to monitor, are not as critical as elevated blood pressure in this context. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL may indicate hyperglycemia, weight gain could be due to fluid retention, and increased joint pain is expected in a client with severe rheumatoid arthritis.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

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