HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL
- D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving furosemide as it indicates hypokalemia, which requires immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L and serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this case. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL is elevated but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life in the context of heart failure and furosemide therapy.
3. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a complex handwashing ritual she performs daily that takes two hours or longer to complete. She worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area. This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?
- A. Addiction
- B. Phobia
- C. Compulsion
- D. Obsession
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client’s handwashing ritual is a compulsion, a repetitive behavior driven by the need to reduce anxiety associated with an obsession. In this case, the client's need to wash her hands excessively stems from an obsession with cleanliness, leading to the compulsive behavior of extensive handwashing. 'Addiction' (Choice A) involves a dependence on a substance or behavior, not related to this scenario. 'Phobia' (Choice B) is an intense fear of a specific object or situation, not applicable here. 'Obsession' (Choice D) refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, while the handwashing behavior in this case is the compulsive action taken to alleviate the anxiety related to the obsession.
4. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
- B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
- C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
- D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.
5. A client with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level is admitted with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant therapy
- B. Place the client on bedrest
- C. Elevate the client's right leg
- D. Apply compression stockings to the right leg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client on bedrest. Placing the client on bedrest is the priority intervention as it helps prevent the risk of embolization from the DVT, which could lead to a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy, elevating the client's right leg, or applying compression stockings are important interventions in managing DVT but should come after ensuring the client is on bedrest to prevent the dislodgment of the clot.
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