Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen), monitoring serum potassium levels closely is crucial. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia is a potential risk in these clients. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important in assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy, but it is not the laboratory value that poses an immediate risk related to the medication. White blood cell count (choice B) and serum creatinine (choice D) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy and are not the priority laboratory values to monitor in this case.

2. An elderly male client is admitted to the urology unit with acute renal failure due to a postrenal obstruction. Which question best assists the nurse in obtaining relevant historical data?

• A. Have you had any difficulty starting your urinary stream?
• B. Do you have a history of kidney stones?
• C. How much fluid do you drink daily?
• D. Have you had any previous urinary tract infections?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Have you had any difficulty starting your urinary stream?' This question is the most relevant as difficulty starting urination can indicate an obstruction, which aligns with the client's current condition of postrenal obstruction causing acute renal failure. Choice B is incorrect as a history of kidney stones may not be directly related to the current obstruction. Choice C, asking about daily fluid intake, is not specific to the current issue of postrenal obstruction. Choice D inquires about previous urinary tract infections, which are not directly related to the current acute renal failure caused by postrenal obstruction.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.

4. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/325 mg. His vital signs are elevated from previous readings: temperature 97.8°F, heart rate 102 beats/minute, respiration 20 breaths/minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left is greater than the right. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. Surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In this scenario, the client is experiencing abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, with signs of potential complications such as a swollen abdomen, tenderness at the groin access site, and unequal peripheral pulses. The client's vital signs are also elevated, indicating a worsening condition. Given these findings, the immediate evaluation by the surgeon is crucial to assess for serious complications like internal bleeding or ischemia. Choice A is incorrect as the focus should be on the urgent need for surgical evaluation rather than lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate management of the client's current situation. Choice D, while providing background information, is not essential for the urgent intervention required in this case.

5. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

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