a client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.

2. During the initial visit to a client with MS who is bed-bound and lifted by a hoist, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the initial visit, the most crucial intervention for the nurse is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being, especially during times when the caregiver is not available. Option B is not the most important as it focuses on assessment rather than immediate safety concerns. Option C, while important, is secondary to ensuring continuous care. Option D is less critical during the initial visit compared to ensuring care continuity in the caregiver's absence.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing shortness of breath and has a prescription for oxygen therapy. What is the maximum amount of oxygen the nurse should administer without a healthcare provider's order?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 4 liters per minute. Without a healthcare provider's order, the nurse should administer a maximum of 4 liters per minute of oxygen to prevent carbon dioxide retention in COPD clients. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity and worsen the client's condition. Choices A, C, and D exceed the safe limit for oxygen administration without a healthcare provider's order.

5. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.

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