HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.
2. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
- D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?
- A. Irregular pulse.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Urinary frequency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion in a client with left-sided heart failure and require immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potentially respiratory distress. Shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema are common manifestations of heart failure but do not directly indicate acute respiratory compromise like crackles in the lungs do.
5. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
- C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
- D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access