a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted with an exacerbation which assessment finding requires immediate int
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.

2. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. This intervention should be implemented first as it is non-invasive and can often effectively address the issue of thick secretions. Performing deep suctioning (Choice A) should not be the first intervention as it is more invasive and should be done based on assessment findings. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids (Choice B) is beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for thick secretions. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice D) requires a healthcare provider's prescription and should be based on assessment data and the client's condition.

3. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, convert 1 mg to 1,000 mcg (1 mg = 1,000 mcg) and then use the formula D/H x Q, where D is the desired dose, H is the dose on hand, and Q is the quantity of solution. In this case, it would be 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75 ml/hour. Choice A (50 ml/hour), Choice B (25 ml/hour), and Choice D (100 ml/hour) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate of 75 ml/hour.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypernatremia. In a client with Diabetes Insipidus, hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level in the blood, can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, seizures, or coma. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent these serious complications. Excessive thirst (choice B) is a common symptom of Diabetes Insipidus but does not require immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice C) and poor skin turgor (choice D) are important assessments but are not as critical as hypernatremia in this context.

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