HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
- D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level
- D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed is the priority intervention in a client with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and unresponsiveness. Severe hyperglycemia can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and administering IV fluids can help manage hyperglycemia and prevent further complications. Administering dextrose IV push (Choice A) can exacerbate hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when the client is unresponsive. Immediate dialysis (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.
3. A newly graduated female staff nurse approaches the nurse manager and requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?
- A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
- B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
- C. I'll talk to the client about his sexual harassment and insist that he stop immediately.
- D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager is option D. Changing the assignment while providing guidance on professional boundaries and how to handle such situations is essential. Option A is not appropriate as it does not address the issue of the client's behavior. Option B, although supportive, does not offer a solution to the problem at hand. Option C is not the best approach as directly confronting the client about sexual harassment may escalate the situation further.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client receiving furosemide. Furosemide can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous, especially in patients with heart failure. Hypokalemia can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, weakness, and other complications. Therefore, prompt intervention is necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Choice B (Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L) is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's safety. Choice D (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl) may suggest hyperglycemia, which is important but not as urgent as addressing hypokalemia in a client with heart failure receiving furosemide.
5. The nurse observes an adolescent client preparing to administer a prescribed corticosteroid medication using a metered dose inhaler. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication
- B. Confirm that the client has correctly shaken the inhaler
- C. Affirm that the client has correctly positioned the inhaler
- D. Ask the client if they have a spacer to use for this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Reminding the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication is crucial as it helps ensure the medication is absorbed into the lungs. Option B is incorrect because shaking the inhaler is not directly related to the client's inhalation technique. Option C is incorrect as correct positioning of the inhaler is important but not the immediate action needed in this situation. Option D is incorrect as asking about the spacer is not the most relevant action to take at this moment.
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