HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
- D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.
2. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the side rails in an up position.
- B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
- C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
- D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.
3. The nurse is caring for a 17-year-old male who fell 20 feet 5 months ago while climbing the side of a cliff and has been in a sustained vegetative state since the accident. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care
- B. Maintain silence during care to avoid overstimulation
- C. Play soothing music in the background
- D. Limit visitors to immediate family only
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Talking directly to the adolescent is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps maintain a sense of connection and respect, even if the response is not evident. Maintaining silence may lead to isolation and hinder any potential communication attempts. Playing soothing music may not provide the personal interaction needed for connection. Limiting visitors to immediate family only may deprive the patient of diverse interactions that could be beneficial for their emotional well-being.
4. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly
- B. Frequent monitoring helps ensure the medication is effective
- C. It is standard protocol for all hospitalized children
- D. We need to monitor for any potential kidney damage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of a new murmur in a client with heart failure receiving digoxin and furosemide is concerning as it may indicate valvular problems or other complications that require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and an apical pulse of 58 beats per minute are within normal limits for a client with heart failure on these medications. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, while slightly low, may be expected due to the diuretic effect of furosemide and may not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
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