HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has been combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, and magnesium supplements along with aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
- B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
- C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
- D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing intervention is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms of recurrent vomiting, combative behavior, and the medications (vitamins, calcium, magnesium supplements, and aspirin) taken by the teen suggest a possible overdose or serious adverse reaction. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is crucial to assess and manage any potential toxicity or adverse effects. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending withholding food and fluids for 2 hours (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Suggesting slow and deep breathing (Choice D) is not appropriate in this urgent situation requiring immediate medical attention.
2. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your mother and father will be here soon. Talk to them about that.'
- B. Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?'
- C. The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing.'
- D. Are you concerned about where your spirit will go?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response when a terminally ill child asks about what will happen to their body when they die is to provide a truthful and straightforward answer. Choice C, 'The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing,' is the best response because it offers a simple and honest explanation without delving into spiritual or emotional aspects that may be confusing or distressing to the child. Choices A and D deflect the question and do not address the child's inquiry directly. Choice B, 'Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?' may come across as dismissive or evasive, rather than providing the clear information the child is seeking.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to gentamicin therapy. The client's serum blood potassium is elevated. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Anuria for the last 12 hours.
- B. Tachycardia and hypotension.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Anuria for the last 12 hours. Anuria, the absence of urine output, indicates complete kidney failure and is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. In acute kidney injury (AKI), the kidneys are unable to filter waste from the blood effectively, leading to a buildup of toxins and electrolyte imbalances like elevated blood potassium levels. Tachycardia and hypotension (choice B) can be seen in AKI but do not reflect the urgency of addressing anuria. Decreased urine output (choice C) is concerning but not as critical as the absence of urine production. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice D) are indicative of kidney dysfunction but do not demand immediate action as anuria does.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- D. Serum pH of 7.30
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS), a serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning laboratory value. This high osmolarity indicates severe dehydration, which can lead to serious complications. Elevated serum glucose levels (choice A) are expected in HHS but do not directly reflect dehydration. Blood pressure (choice B) and serum pH (choice D) are important parameters to monitor but are not the most concerning values in HHS compared to serum osmolarity.
5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.
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