HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client presents at the clinic with blepharitis. What instructions should the nurse provide for home care?
- A. Use bilateral eye patches while sleeping to prevent injury to the eyes.
- B. Wear sunglasses when outdoors to prevent photophobia.
- C. Apply cold compresses to reduce inflammation.
- D. Apply warm moist compresses then gently scrub eyelids with diluted baby shampoo.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blepharitis is managed with warm moist compresses to help loosen debris and oils on the eyelids, followed by gentle scrubbing with a mild solution like diluted baby shampoo. This helps in controlling the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using eye patches while sleeping is not a standard recommendation for blepharitis. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sunglasses does not directly treat blepharitis but may help with light sensitivity. Choice C is incorrect as cold compresses are not typically used for blepharitis, as warm compresses are more effective in managing the condition.
2. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?
- A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
- B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
- C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
- D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.
3. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?
- A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
- C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
- D. Promote the elimination of albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.
4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.
5. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased joint pain
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- C. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl
- D. Fever of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning in a client with rheumatoid arthritis on prednisone as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. Increased joint pain, blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl, and fever of 100.4°F are important assessments but do not require immediate intervention compared to the potential severity of rapid weight gain.
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