Nursing Elites

1. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?

• A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
• B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
• C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
• D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.

2. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in the daily plan of care for a client with a burned extremity?

• A. Distal pulse intensity
• B. Skin integrity
• C. Pain levels
• D. Range of motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Distal pulse intensity. Monitoring distal pulses is crucial to ensure that circulation to the extremity is not compromised. This assessment helps in detecting any signs of decreased circulation, which is vital in managing a burned extremity. While skin integrity (choice B), pain levels (choice C), and range of motion (choice D) are also important assessments, monitoring distal pulse intensity takes precedence as it directly reflects the perfusion status of the affected extremity in a burned client.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fever of 100.4°F
• B. Positive Chvostek's sign
• C. Increased joint pain
• D. Swelling in the joints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which requires immediate intervention as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Fever, increased joint pain, and swelling in the joints are common symptoms in clients with rheumatoid arthritis but do not require immediate intervention like addressing hypocalcemia.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
• C. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
• D. ‘I should limit my caffeine intake to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms’ indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.

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