after a third hospitalization 6 months ago a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition the client is drowsy but responding to v
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the client's capillary refill of 8 seconds is the assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. A capillary refill greater than 3 to 5 seconds indicates poor perfusion, which could be a sign of inadequate circulation and oxygenation. Checking capillary refill is a quick and useful way to assess peripheral perfusion. Bruises on arms and legs may indicate a bleeding disorder but are not as urgent as addressing poor perfusion. A round and tight abdomen could suggest ascites, which is already known in this case. Pitting edema in lower legs is a common finding in malnutrition and ascites but does not require immediate intervention as poor capillary refill does.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before a renal biopsy, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), monitoring creatinine levels is crucial as elevated levels may indicate worsening kidney function, which could impact the safety and outcome of the biopsy. Hemoglobin (choice C) is important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not directly related to the kidney biopsy procedure. Serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD but is not specifically crucial before a renal biopsy. White blood cell count (choice D) is more relevant for assessing infection or inflammation, which is not the primary concern before a renal biopsy.

3. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored before the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can be exacerbated during hemodialysis, making it crucial to closely monitor serum potassium levels before the procedure. Monitoring serum creatinine, serum calcium, or hemoglobin levels is important in managing ESRD but is not the immediate focus before hemodialysis. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.

5. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.

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