Nursing Elites

1. To reduce staff nurse role ambiguity, which strategy should the nurse-manager implement?

• A. Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current.
• B. Conduct regular meetings to clarify roles.
• C. Increase communication between team members.
• D. Provide additional training for new nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the staff nurse job description to ensure that it is clear, accurate, and current. By ensuring that job descriptions are clear and up-to-date, nurse-managers can reduce ambiguity and confusion about roles and responsibilities. Choice B, conducting regular meetings to clarify roles, may help but may not address the root cause of ambiguity. Choice C, increasing communication between team members, is important but may not specifically target role ambiguity. Choice D, providing additional training for new nurses, is valuable but may not directly address role ambiguity among existing staff.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sodium. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis, monitoring serum sodium levels closely is essential. Hemodialysis can cause rapid shifts in sodium levels, leading to electrolyte imbalances. While serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD, it is not the most crucial before hemodialysis. Serum creatinine (choice B) is an indicator of kidney function but is not the most immediate concern before hemodialysis. Serum chloride (choice D) is not typically the primary electrolyte of concern in CKD patients before hemodialysis.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high in a client with CKD, and it should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not the most critical values to report before hemodialysis. While a serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent as a level of 6.0 mEq/L in this context. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and blood glucose of 200 mg/dl are important parameters to monitor but are not as immediately concerning before hemodialysis compared to a high potassium level.

5. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.

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