Nursing Elites

1. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Low urine output
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention. Increased fatigue may be expected due to anemia associated with CKD and erythropoietin therapy. Low urine output may indicate impaired kidney function but is not as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin levels are the desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy, indicating an appropriate response to treatment.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Increased abdominal girth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with cirrhosis presenting with jaundice and ascites, yellowing of the skin (icterus) is the most concerning assessment finding. This indicates significant liver dysfunction and a high level of bilirubin in the blood. Yellowing of the skin suggests a severe impairment of the liver's ability to process bilirubin, which can lead to serious complications. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as skin yellowing. Confusion and altered mental status are also critical findings in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but skin yellowing is more closely associated with the severity of liver dysfunction in this scenario.

5. When planning care for a 10-year-old child with pneumonia receiving oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?

• A. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Increase oxygen flow rate if the child is still tachypneic.
• C. Reduce oxygen levels gradually after symptoms improve.
• D. Humidify the oxygen to prevent drying of mucous membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle of oxygen administration to consider is to avoid administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods. High levels of oxygen for prolonged periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in pediatric patients. Increasing the oxygen flow rate based on tachypnea may not be necessary and can potentially lead to oxygen toxicity. Gradually reducing oxygen levels after symptoms improve may compromise the child's oxygenation. While humidifying oxygen is important to prevent drying of mucous membranes, the primary concern in this case is to avoid high oxygen levels for an extended duration to prevent oxygen toxicity.

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