HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?
- A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
- B. Birth control pills.
- C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
- D. Cold medication containing alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.
2. When finding a client sitting on the floor, the nurse calls for help from the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse ask the UAP to do?
- A. Check for any abrasions or bruises.
- B. Help the client to stand.
- C. Get a blood pressure cuff.
- D. Report the fall to the nurse-manager.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct task for the nurse to ask the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to do in this situation is to "Get a blood pressure cuff." This is important because assessing the client's vital signs, including blood pressure, is crucial after a fall to ensure there are no underlying issues like hypotension. Choices A and B may be important tasks for the nurse to perform as part of the assessment and care of the client. However, in this scenario, the immediate concern should be to check the client's blood pressure. Choice D is not the most urgent task at this time, as assessing the client's condition takes precedence.
3. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?
- A. Expresses an understanding of the procedure.
- B. NPO for 6 hrs.
- C. No known drug allergies.
- D. Intravenous access intact.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.
4. A newly graduated female staff nurse approaches the nurse manager and requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?
- A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
- B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
- C. I'll talk to the client about his sexual harassment and insist that he stop immediately.
- D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager is option D. Changing the assignment while providing guidance on professional boundaries and how to handle such situations is essential. Option A is not appropriate as it does not address the issue of the client's behavior. Option B, although supportive, does not offer a solution to the problem at hand. Option C is not the best approach as directly confronting the client about sexual harassment may escalate the situation further.
5. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
- B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
- C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access