Nursing Elites

1. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60, pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

• A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
• B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
• C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is dealing with a lethargic client with concerning vital signs after a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This is crucial to evaluate for possible overdose, as the client's symptoms could be indicative of opioid toxicity. Checking the morphine amount and dose will help the nurse adjust the treatment accordingly. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the potential cause of the client's lethargy and abnormal vital signs related to the morphine infusion.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify changes indicative of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice B) is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing chest pain related to myocardial infarction. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram (Choice D) may provide valuable information about cardiac structure and function, but it is not the first-line diagnostic test for acute chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

5. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
• B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
• C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
• D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.

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