Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before a renal biopsy, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), monitoring creatinine levels is crucial as elevated levels may indicate worsening kidney function, which could impact the safety and outcome of the biopsy. Hemoglobin (choice C) is important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not directly related to the kidney biopsy procedure. Serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD but is not specifically crucial before a renal biopsy. White blood cell count (choice D) is more relevant for assessing infection or inflammation, which is not the primary concern before a renal biopsy.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In clients receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant for assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical due to the potential adverse effects of elevated potassium levels in CKD patients on this therapy.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Severe abdominal distention
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Decreased bowel sounds
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe abdominal distention is a sign of worsening pancreatitis and can indicate complications like bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration. Decreased urine output (Choice B) could indicate renal impairment, decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) are expected in pancreatitis due to paralytic ileus, and an increased heart rate (Choice D) is a common response to pain or stress in acute pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless it is extremely high or persistent.

4. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.

5. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.

Similar Questions