Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to thin secretions.
• B. Administer a mucolytic agent.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Perform deep suctioning as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the first priority in managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy to facilitate airway clearance. This intervention helps to moisten secretions, making them easier to clear. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial, but increasing humidity should be addressed first. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) and performing deep suctioning (Choice D) are interventions that can be considered after addressing humidity if necessary, but they are not the initial priority.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• D. Serum pH of 7.30

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS), a serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning laboratory value. This high osmolarity indicates severe dehydration, which can lead to serious complications. Elevated serum glucose levels (choice A) are expected in HHS but do not directly reflect dehydration. Blood pressure (choice B) and serum pH (choice D) are important parameters to monitor but are not the most concerning values in HHS compared to serum osmolarity.

3. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.

4. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
• B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
• C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
• D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

Similar Questions