HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Encourage fluid intake to thin secretions.
- B. Administer a mucolytic agent.
- C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
- D. Perform deep suctioning as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room is the first priority in managing thick, tenacious secretions in a client with a tracheostomy to facilitate airway clearance. This intervention helps to moisten secretions, making them easier to clear. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial, but increasing humidity should be addressed first. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice B) and performing deep suctioning (Choice D) are interventions that can be considered after addressing humidity if necessary, but they are not the initial priority.
2. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?
- A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
- B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
- C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
- D. In need of immediate medical intervention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.
3. In determining the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition?
- A. High urinary pH
- B. Abdominal ascites
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orthopnea. If the client is orthopneic, the nurse needs to adapt the insertion position that does not place the client in a supine position. This means the head of the bed should be elevated as much as possible to facilitate catheter insertion without compromising the client's breathing. High urinary pH (choice A) is not directly relevant to the insertion position of a urinary catheter. Abdominal ascites (choice B) may impact the procedure due to abdominal distension but is not as crucial as orthopnea. Fever (choice D) does not specifically affect the client's position for urinary catheter insertion.
4. A 12-year-old boy has a body mass index (BMI) of 28, a systolic pressure, and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C) of 7.8%. Which selection indicates that his mother understands the management of his diet?
- A. One whole-wheat bagel with cream cheese, two strips of bacon, six ounces of orange juice.
- B. Two eggs with toast and butter, 8 ounces of milk.
- C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt.
- D. Pancakes with syrup and sausage links.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt is a healthier choice for managing the diet of a 12-year-old boy with a high BMI and elevated HBA1C. This choice provides a good balance of nutrients, fiber, and low-fat content, helping to lower BMI and maintain healthy blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal as they contain higher levels of refined carbohydrates, saturated fats, and sugars, which can contribute to weight gain and worsen blood sugar control in this scenario.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?
- A. 0.35 ml
- B. 0.40 ml
- C. 0.50 ml
- D. 0.45 ml
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.
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