a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide lasix which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum triglycerides should be monitored closely in a client receiving TPN as they may indicate hyperlipidemia, which is a potential complication of TPN. Monitoring serum triglycerides is essential to prevent complications such as hypertriglyceridemia. Serum calcium and glucose levels are also important to monitor in clients receiving TPN, but in this scenario, serum triglycerides take priority due to the risk of hyperlipidemia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is the most crucial intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are the primary issues in DKA. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as administering insulin. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the underlying cause of DKA. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not as urgent as administering insulin to address the immediate metabolic imbalance.

4. A male client with cancer, who is receiving antineoplastic drugs, is admitted to the hospital. What findings are most often manifested in this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ecchymosis and hematemesis. These findings are often manifested in a client receiving antineoplastic drugs due to their potential side effects, including increased bleeding tendencies. Choice B, weight loss, and alopecia are more commonly associated with the side effects of cancer itself rather than antineoplastic drugs. Choice C, weakness, and activity intolerance can be seen in cancer patients but are not specific to antineoplastic drug therapy. Choice D, sore throat, and fever are less likely to be directly related to antineoplastic drugs and are more often linked to infections or other conditions.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.

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