a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide lasix which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

2. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

3. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of this OTC medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. These symptoms are often reported by individuals taking this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.

4. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.

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