Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and can signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 90% indicates some oxygenation impairment but may not necessitate immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress. Inspiratory crackles may be present in pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention compared to the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles.

2. A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.
• B. Discontinue the medication and follow up with a healthcare provider.
• C. Increase fluid intake and monitor urine color.
• D. Continue taking the medication and report any changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.' The symptoms described by the client, including nausea, dark-colored urine, and yellowish skin, are indicative of possible liver toxicity, a serious side effect of pioglitazone. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the condition and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B advises discontinuing the medication without seeking immediate medical assistance, which could delay necessary treatment; C focuses solely on increasing fluid intake and monitoring urine color, overlooking the urgency of the situation; and D suggests continuing the medication when prompt evaluation is crucial in this scenario.

3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.

4. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

5. A client with pneumonia has arterial blood gases levels at: pH 7.33; PaCO2 49 mm/Hg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; PaO2 95. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these results?

• A. Institute coughing and deep breathing protocols.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
• D. Increase IV fluids to improve hydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm/Hg), indicating hypoventilation. The appropriate intervention for respiratory acidosis is to improve ventilation. Coughing and deep breathing protocols can help the client to effectively ventilate and improve gas exchange. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary in respiratory distress situations, but addressing the underlying cause of hypoventilation is crucial. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Choice C) are not the first-line interventions for uncomplicated respiratory acidosis. Increasing IV fluids (Choice D) does not directly address the respiratory acidosis present in this scenario.

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