HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Serum magnesium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. In COPD, especially when the client is receiving diuretics or corticosteroids, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. These medications can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Arterial blood gas (choice A) values are important in assessing respiratory status but are not the primary concern related to medication side effects. Serum sodium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are also important, but in the context of COPD exacerbation and medication effects, potassium monitoring takes precedence.
2. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?
- A. Ineffective coping related to denial.
- B. Risk for impaired cardiac function.
- C. Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge.
- D. Anxiety related to hospitalization.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to denial. The client's desire to leave the hospital shortly after a myocardial infarction despite the severity of the condition indicates denial and ineffective coping. This behavior could lead to complications as the client may not adequately address his health needs. Choice B, Risk for impaired cardiac function, is not the most appropriate nursing problem in this scenario as the client's behavior is more indicative of psychological coping issues rather than a direct physiological risk at this moment. Choice C, Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge, does not align with the client's behavior of wanting to leave the hospital. Choice D, Anxiety related to hospitalization, may not be the best option as the client's behavior is more suggestive of denial rather than anxiety about being hospitalized.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In clients receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant for assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical due to the potential adverse effects of elevated potassium levels in CKD patients on this therapy.
4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In a client receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy specifically impacts potassium levels, not white blood cell count, hemoglobin level, or serum calcium level.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.0
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
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