HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Serum magnesium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. In COPD, especially when the client is receiving diuretics or corticosteroids, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. These medications can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Arterial blood gas (choice A) values are important in assessing respiratory status but are not the primary concern related to medication side effects. Serum sodium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are also important, but in the context of COPD exacerbation and medication effects, potassium monitoring takes precedence.
2. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?
- A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
- B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
- C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
- D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of potential opioid overdose, such as lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, and bradypnea. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This evaluation is crucial in determining if the client is receiving an excessive amount of morphine, leading to the observed symptoms. Checking the PCA pump syringe will provide essential information to address the client's condition promptly and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as they do not directly address the potential cause of the client's symptoms related to morphine administration.
3. The nurse determines that a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object. What documentation should the nurse enter about this finding?
- A. Pupils reactive to accommodation.
- B. Nystagmus present with pupillary focus.
- C. Peripheral vision intact.
- D. Consensual pupillary constriction present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils reactive to accommodation.' When pupils constrict as the client changes focus from a far object to a near one, it indicates a normal response known as accommodation. This physiological process allows the eyes to adjust their focus, and it is a healthy finding. Choice B is incorrect because nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement, not related to the change in focus. Choice C is irrelevant to the scenario and does not describe the observed finding. Choice D refers to pupillary constriction in response to light, not accommodation to changes in focus.
4. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?
- A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
- B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
- C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.
5. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed because of early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
- B. Provide the client with a warm blanket to reduce stiffness.
- C. Delay the procedure until the client is less stiff.
- D. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A warm shower can help reduce morning stiffness, making the procedure more comfortable for the client. This intervention promotes comfort and mobility, addressing the immediate issue of stiffness. Providing a warm blanket (choice B) may offer some comfort but will not address the stiffness as effectively as a warm shower. Delaying the procedure (choice C) may inconvenience the client and not address the underlying stiffness issue. Encouraging range-of-motion exercises (choice D) is important for long-term management but may not provide immediate relief from the stiffness that is hindering the procedure.
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