Nursing Elites

1. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths
• B. Remove the mask to deflate the bag
• C. Increase the liter flow of oxygen
• D. Document the assessment data

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to document the assessment data. In this scenario, the findings indicate that the partial rebreather mask is functioning correctly as the reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration. Additionally, the client's respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute falls within the normal range. There is no need to encourage the client to take deep breaths, as the respiratory rate is normal, and doing so may disrupt the client's breathing pattern. Removing the mask to deflate the bag or increasing the liter flow of oxygen are unnecessary actions based on the assessment findings.

2. An adult male with schizophrenia who has been noncompliant in taking oral antipsychotic medications refuses a prescribed IM medication. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal
• B. Attempt to convince the client to take the medication
• C. Administer the medication without the client's consent
• D. Document the refusal and take no further action

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal. It is important for the healthcare provider to be informed so that they can decide on the next steps in the client's treatment, which may involve exploring alternative options or strategies. Attempting to convince the client to take the medication may not be effective, especially if the client is refusing. Administering the medication without the client's consent would violate the client's autonomy and rights. Simply documenting the refusal without further action may not address the client's treatment needs.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

4. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 15 mEq/L
• D. Serum pH of 7.28

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum pH of 7.28 indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to acidosis. Monitoring and correcting the pH level is crucial in managing DKA. Serum glucose levels may be high in DKA, but the immediate concern is correcting the acidosis to prevent complications. Serum potassium and bicarbonate levels are also important but not as immediately critical as correcting the acidosis in DKA.

Similar Questions