HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?
- A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
- B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
- C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
- D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.
2. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
- B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.
3. Which class of drugs is the only source of a cure for septic shock?
- A. Antihypertensives
- B. Anti-infectives
- C. Antihistamines
- D. Anticholesteremics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anti-infectives. Anti-infective agents, such as antibiotics, are essential in treating septic shock as they can eliminate bacteria and halt the progression of the condition by stopping the production of endotoxins. Antihypertensives (Choice A) are used to lower blood pressure, antihistamines (Choice C) are used to treat allergic reactions, and anticholesteremics (Choice D) are used to lower cholesterol levels. However, none of these drug classes directly address the bacterial infection that underlies septic shock.
4. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the side rails in an up position.
- B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
- C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
- D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Subcutaneous emphysema
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site
- D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the correct answer as it is most concerning in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is acceptable and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site may be a normal finding after chest tube placement and does not necessarily indicate a complication. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube and does not require immediate intervention.
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