Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

2. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?

• A. Expresses an understanding of the procedure.
• B. NPO for 6 hrs.
• C. No known drug allergies.
• D. Intravenous access intact.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. A client who has just returned from surgery is shivering uncontrollably. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer the client a warm blanket
• B. Apply warm blankets and monitor the client's temperature
• C. Place a warm blanket in the client's bed before transferring the client from the stretcher
• D. Administer a prescribed muscle relaxant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying warm blankets and monitoring the client's temperature is the best action to manage postoperative shivering. Shivering after surgery can be a common response due to factors like exposure to cold, pain, or anesthesia effects. Providing warmth through blankets can help regulate the client's body temperature and alleviate shivering. Monitoring the client's temperature is essential to ensure it returns to a normal range. Option A is not as comprehensive as option B, which includes both providing warmth and monitoring the client. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on preparing the bed rather than addressing the client's immediate need for warmth. Option D is not appropriate without further assessment or prescription for a muscle relaxant to address shivering.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Use of accessory muscles
• B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

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