HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Serum glucose level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.
2. A client who is at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. After a 6-gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
- B. Blood pressure of 138/88
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Temperature of 99.8°F
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour indicates that the kidneys are being affected by the high level of magnesium sulfate. This decreased urine output can lead to magnesium toxicity and impaired kidney function. Blood pressure of 138/88 is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate concern related to magnesium sulfate. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal, and a temperature of 99.8°F is slightly elevated but not a priority in the context of severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate administration.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
4. The nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Wheezing heard on expiration
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
- D. Nasal flaring with sternal retractions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nasal flaring with sternal retractions indicates severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old with bronchiolitis, requiring immediate intervention. Nasal flaring and sternal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing and decreased air movement, indicating the child is struggling to breathe. Wheezing on expiration (Choice A) is common in bronchiolitis but may not require immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 90% (Choice B) is low but may not be the most critical finding in this case. A respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute (Choice C) is elevated but alone may not indicate the need for immediate intervention as much as nasal flaring and sternal retractions.
5. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer prescribed diuretic therapy.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in improving oxygenation in clients with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath by reducing venous return to the heart and decreasing fluid overload in the lungs. This intervention helps to alleviate the client's breathing difficulty. Administering diuretic therapy (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring proper positioning. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice D) is essential but is not the first intervention needed for a client experiencing respiratory distress.
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