Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

2. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

3. When preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client admitted to the surgical unit with symptoms of a possible intestinal obstruction, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees
• B. Administer an antiemetic
• C. Prepare the client for surgery
• D. Provide oral care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees is essential when inserting an NG tube. This position helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach and reduces the risk of aspiration. Administering an antiemetic may be necessary to control nausea or vomiting, but it is not the primary intervention when inserting an NG tube. Preparing the client for surgery is not indicated solely for the insertion of an NG tube. Providing oral care is important for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to inserting an NG tube.

4. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Slide the stethoscope across the sternum.
• B. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site.
• C. Listen with the bell at the same location.
• D. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, the nurse should listen at the same location using the bell first. This allows for the accurate identification of low-pitched sounds. Moving the stethoscope across the sternum (Choice A) or to the mitral site (Choice B) would not be the initial actions to assess for an S3 heart sound. Observing the cardiac telemetry monitor (Choice D) is not relevant for assessing S3 heart sounds, as it does not provide direct auscultation of heart sounds.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with DKA as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level is a key indicator of this acid-base imbalance. Elevated serum glucose levels are expected in DKA but are managed through insulin therapy. Serum potassium levels can fluctuate in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but a value of 5.5 mEq/L is not as immediately concerning as metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the most critical finding in this scenario is the low serum bicarbonate level.

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