Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

2. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
• D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.

3. A client who has just returned from surgery is shivering uncontrollably. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer the client a warm blanket
• B. Apply warm blankets and monitor the client's temperature
• C. Place a warm blanket in the client's bed before transferring the client from the stretcher
• D. Administer a prescribed muscle relaxant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying warm blankets and monitoring the client's temperature is the best action to manage postoperative shivering. Shivering after surgery can be a common response due to factors like exposure to cold, pain, or anesthesia effects. Providing warmth through blankets can help regulate the client's body temperature and alleviate shivering. Monitoring the client's temperature is essential to ensure it returns to a normal range. Option A is not as comprehensive as option B, which includes both providing warmth and monitoring the client. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on preparing the bed rather than addressing the client's immediate need for warmth. Option D is not appropriate without further assessment or prescription for a muscle relaxant to address shivering.

4. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has become combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
• B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
• C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
• D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms described, including recurrent vomiting and becoming combative after taking vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin, indicate a potential overdose or a serious condition. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation in the emergency room is crucial. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending to withhold food and fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate in this urgent situation. Suggesting deep breathing (Choice D) does not address the seriousness of the symptoms and the need for immediate medical attention.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.

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