Nursing Elites

1. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Use of accessory muscles
• B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.

4. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?

• A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
• B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
• C. Take acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F.
• D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving furosemide as it indicates hypokalemia, which requires immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L and serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this case. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL is elevated but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life in the context of heart failure and furosemide therapy.

Similar Questions