Nursing Elites

1. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

2. During orientation, a newly hired nurse demonstrates suctioning of a tracheostomy in a skills class. After the demonstration, the supervising nurse expresses concern that the demonstrated procedure increased the client's risk for which problem?

• A. Infection
• B. Hypoxia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Bronchospasm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Improper suctioning techniques can introduce pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Choice B, Hypoxia, is incorrect as it is more related to inadequate oxygen supply. Choice C, Bleeding, is not typically associated with suctioning a tracheostomy unless done too aggressively. Choice D, Bronchospasm, is not directly linked to suctioning but may occur due to other triggers in patients with sensitive airways.

3. The nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Wheezing heard on expiration
• B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• C. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• D. Nasal flaring with sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nasal flaring with sternal retractions indicates severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old with bronchiolitis, requiring immediate intervention. Nasal flaring and sternal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing and decreased air movement, indicating the child is struggling to breathe. Wheezing on expiration (Choice A) is common in bronchiolitis but may not require immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 90% (Choice B) is low but may not be the most critical finding in this case. A respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute (Choice C) is elevated but alone may not indicate the need for immediate intervention as much as nasal flaring and sternal retractions.

4. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
• B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
• C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
• D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.

5. The nurse is assessing a primigravida at 39-weeks gestation during a weekly prenatal visit. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 200 beats/minute.
• B. Mild ankle edema.
• C. Complaints of back pain.
• D. Decreased fetal movements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 200 beats per minute is significantly elevated and requires immediate medical attention. This finding could indicate fetal distress, tachycardia, or other serious issues that need prompt evaluation. Mild ankle edema, complaints of back pain, and decreased fetal movements are common in pregnancy but are not as urgent or concerning as a high fetal heart rate.

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