HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?
- A. Appearance of wound
- B. Pain level
- C. Presence of fever
- D. Mobility status
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.
2. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?
- A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
- B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
- C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
- D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.
3. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a neurological assessment.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a neurological assessment. In a client with chronic heart failure presenting with confusion, the priority is to assess neurological status to rule out potential causes such as hypoxia or other complications. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice B) is important but assessing the neurological status takes precedence in this scenario. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining an ECG (Choice D) may be necessary but are not the initial priority when a client presents with confusion alongside shortness of breath.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Elevated liver enzymes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, the presence of crackles in the lungs is the most critical finding that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires prompt intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Shortness of breath, though a common symptom in heart failure, is a result of pulmonary congestion, making crackles a more direct indicator of the severity of the condition. Jugular venous distention and elevated liver enzymes are important to assess in heart failure but are not as immediately concerning as crackles in the lungs, which directly reflect the impact of heart failure on the respiratory system.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Headache
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.
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