Nursing Elites

1. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crackles in the lungs
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, which is crucial in reducing further damage. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important to assess for changes indicative of myocardial infarction, but providing oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the physiological need for oxygen. Administering nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions but are typically implemented after oxygen therapy to address vasodilation and antiplatelet effects, respectively.

4. A client with a head injury is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Widening pulse pressure
• B. Sudden drop in heart rate
• C. A decrease in urine output
• D. Elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the body's compensatory mechanisms lead to an elevation in blood pressure and a widening pulse pressure. This occurs due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion. Therefore, elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure are classic signs of increased ICP and necessitate immediate attention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a widening pulse pressure, sudden drop in heart rate, or decreased urine output are not specific indicators of increased ICP.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

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