HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an outpatient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs?
- A. Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home
- B. Made an appointment with the oncologist for follow-up treatment
- C. Expressed concern about hair loss and fatigue
- D. Asked for dietary recommendations to manage nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. Renting movies and borrowing books to use at home indicate that the client understands the need for rest and self-care after chemotherapy. This behavior demonstrates the client's intention to engage in activities that promote relaxation and recovery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because making an appointment for follow-up treatment, expressing concern about side effects like hair loss and fatigue, and asking for dietary recommendations are important but do not directly reflect the client's understanding of her immediate care needs post-chemotherapy.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
- D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.
3. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?
- A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
- B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
- C. Restlessness and anxiety
- D. Diaphoresis and dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Fever of 100.4°F
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. This elevation in temperature may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and deterioration of the client's condition. The other vital signs mentioned, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, while important to monitor, are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate threat like a fever indicative of infection.
5. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.
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