HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
- A. Is there a history of female baldness in your family?
- B. Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?
- C. Do you work with hazardous chemicals?
- D. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the manifestations reported by the client, such as coarse hair, missing eyebrows, and puffy eyes, are indicative of hypothyroidism. Changes in the fingernails, such as brittle or pitted nails, can also be associated with hypothyroidism. Option A is incorrect as female baldness is not directly related to the reported symptoms. Option B is less relevant as stress typically does not cause these specific symptoms. Option C is also less relevant as exposure to hazardous chemicals would present with different symptoms.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Headache
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.
3. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dl
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
- D. Serum pH of 7.30
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). This level of osmolarity indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, putting the client at risk of complications like organ failure. Immediate intervention is crucial to address the dehydration and restore fluid balance. The other options, while important in the overall assessment of a client with HHS, do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration and hyperosmolarity seen with a high serum osmolarity level.
4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats/minute. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
- B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
- C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement in this situation is to assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present. This helps to confirm the accuracy of the reported weak pulse. In this scenario, it is crucial to involve a licensed nurse to further assess the situation and provide a more comprehensive evaluation. Inaccurate pulse readings can lead to inappropriate interventions or unnecessary alarm. Instructing the UAP to count the apical pulse may not address the accuracy issue. Checking capillary refill time is not directly related to confirming the weak pulse rate. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately may be premature without confirming the accuracy of the pulse reading first.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Fever of 100.4°F
- B. Positive Chvostek's sign
- C. Increased joint pain
- D. Swelling in the joints
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which requires immediate intervention as it can lead to life-threatening complications. Fever, increased joint pain, and swelling in the joints are common symptoms in clients with rheumatoid arthritis but do not require immediate intervention like addressing hypocalcemia.
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