HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion, which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). When a client with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with new-onset confusion, an ECG is crucial to assess for cardiac ischemia, which could be a potential cause of the confusion. A chest X-ray (Choice B) is not typically the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are more useful in assessing oxygenation and acid-base balance rather than the cause of confusion in this scenario. While an echocardiogram (Choice D) provides valuable information about cardiac structure and function, it is usually not the initial diagnostic test needed in the evaluation of acute confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation.
2. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
- B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
- C. Perform a bladder scan
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.
3. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60, pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?
- A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
- B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
- C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
- D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is dealing with a lethargic client with concerning vital signs after a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This is crucial to evaluate for possible overdose, as the client's symptoms could be indicative of opioid toxicity. Checking the morphine amount and dose will help the nurse adjust the treatment accordingly. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the potential cause of the client's lethargy and abnormal vital signs related to the morphine infusion.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should check my feet every day for cuts or blisters.
- B. I need to moisturize my feet daily, especially between my toes.
- C. I should wear comfortable shoes that fit well.
- D. I should avoid walking barefoot, even indoors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Moisturizing between the toes can create a moist environment that fosters fungal infections. Checking the feet daily for cuts or blisters (choice A) is correct in diabetes management to prevent complications. Wearing comfortable shoes that fit well (choice C) and avoiding walking barefoot (choice D) are also essential in preventing foot ulcers and injuries in diabetic patients.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
- D. Obtain a sputum culture.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is the initial priority when managing an exacerbation of COPD. In COPD exacerbations, the primary concern is hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange. Administering oxygen helps to improve oxygenation and prevent further complications. Elevating the head of the bed can aid in breathing comfort but is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygen supply. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture is relevant for identifying pathogens but is not the immediate priority in addressing hypoxemia.
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