Nursing Elites

1. Which instruction is most important for a client who receives a new plan of care to treat osteoporosis?

• A. Start a weight-bearing exercise plan.
• B. Increase consumption of foods rich in calcium.
• C. Arrange a bone density test every year.
• D. Stay upright after taking the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Stay upright after taking the medication.' This instruction is crucial for clients receiving medications like bisphosphonates to prevent esophageal irritation or erosion. While weight-bearing exercises (choice A) are important for bone health, staying upright after medication intake takes precedence. Increasing calcium-rich foods (choice B) is beneficial but not the most important immediate instruction. Scheduling bone density tests (choice C) is necessary for monitoring osteoporosis but is not as critical as staying upright after medication.

2. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

• A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
• B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
• C. Formation of bone spurs.
• D. Reduction of joint space.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.

3. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker over time. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
• C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
• D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse should be to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This open-ended question allows the nurse to gather valuable information directly from the client, aiding in assessing the situation accurately and formulating an appropriate care plan. Choice A is incorrect as assuming muscle weakness is an expected occurrence with aging without further assessment may overlook potential underlying issues. Choice B is premature as it jumps straight to physical examination without first gathering subjective data. Choice C is unnecessary at this point as reviewing diagnostic test results should come after initial assessment and data collection from the client.

4. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
• B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
• C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
• D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.

5. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

• A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
• B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
• C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
• D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

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