Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia and is receiving IV antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Client reports less chest pain.
• B. Client's white blood cell count is decreasing.
• C. Client has a decreased respiratory rate.
• D. Client has clear breath sounds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clear breath sounds indicate that the pneumonia is resolving and the treatment is effective. Breath sounds are often muffled or crackling in pneumonia due to the presence of fluid or inflammation in the lungs. Clear breath sounds suggest that the air is moving freely through the lungs, indicating improvement. Choices A, B, and C are less specific indicators of pneumonia resolution. While less chest pain and a decreasing white blood cell count can be positive signs, they are not as direct in indicating the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment as the presence of clear breath sounds. A decreased respiratory rate could be seen in various conditions and may not solely indicate the resolution of pneumonia.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

4. A client is admitted with a possible myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a myocardial infarction?

• A. Serum creatine kinase (CK)
• B. Serum troponin
• C. Serum myoglobin
• D. C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum troponin is the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within 3-4 hours after myocardial damage, peak at 10-24 hours, and remain elevated for up to 10-14 days. Creatine kinase (CK) and myoglobin can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin is more specific to cardiac muscle damage. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific for myocardial infarction.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the assessment finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, which can compromise respiratory function and lead to serious complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% may be concerning but does not require immediate intervention as it is still within an acceptable range. Crepitus around the insertion site is common after chest tube placement and may not always indicate a problem. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention in this context.

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