HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer prescribed diuretic therapy.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in improving oxygenation in clients with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath by reducing venous return to the heart and decreasing fluid overload in the lungs. This intervention helps to alleviate the client's breathing difficulty. Administering diuretic therapy (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring proper positioning. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice D) is essential but is not the first intervention needed for a client experiencing respiratory distress.
2. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
- B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
- C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
- D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.
3. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/325 mg. His vital signs are elevated from previous readings: temperature 97.8°F, heart rate 102 beats/minute, respiration 20 breaths/minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left is greater than the right. What data is needed to make this report complete?
- A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
- B. Surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
- C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
- D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In this scenario, the client is experiencing abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, with signs of potential complications such as a swollen abdomen, tenderness at the groin access site, and unequal peripheral pulses. The client's vital signs are also elevated, indicating a worsening condition. Given these findings, the immediate evaluation by the surgeon is crucial to assess for serious complications like internal bleeding or ischemia. Choice A is incorrect as the focus should be on the urgent need for surgical evaluation rather than lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate management of the client's current situation. Choice D, while providing background information, is not essential for the urgent intervention required in this case.
4. When a male Korean-American client looks away when asked by the nurse to describe his problem, what is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Ask for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter.
- B. Establish indirect eye contact with the client.
- C. Allow several minutes for the client to respond.
- D. Repeat the question using simpler language.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the best initial nursing action is to allow several minutes for the client to respond. This approach respects the cultural norms of the client, as in some cultures, direct eye contact may be perceived as disrespectful or intrusive. By giving the client time to gather his thoughts and respond at his own pace, the nurse promotes effective communication and demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Asking for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter (Choice A) may be necessary for further communication but is not the best initial action. Establishing indirect eye contact (Choice B) may still make the client uncomfortable. Repeating the question using simpler language (Choice D) may not address the underlying cultural aspect affecting the client's response.
5. In a client with heart failure receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix), which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and concerning in a client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications. The other options, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, blood glucose of 200 mg/dl, and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl, are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks to the client in this scenario.
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