a client with a history of congestive heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in improving oxygenation in clients with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath by reducing venous return to the heart and decreasing fluid overload in the lungs. This intervention helps to alleviate the client's breathing difficulty. Administering diuretic therapy (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring proper positioning. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice D) is essential but is not the first intervention needed for a client experiencing respiratory distress.

2. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.

3. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.

4. A client is admitted with a possible myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum troponin is the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within 3-4 hours after myocardial damage, peak at 10-24 hours, and remain elevated for up to 10-14 days. Creatine kinase (CK) and myoglobin can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin is more specific to cardiac muscle damage. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific for myocardial infarction.

5. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

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