a 35 year old female client has just been admitted to the post anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy which statement reflects the
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HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.

2. The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 3-pound weight gain in two days indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. This could be a sign of decompensation in the client's condition, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate threat to the client's health and can be addressed after assessing the client with congestive heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, which can exacerbate heart failure. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not as immediately concerning as hyperkalemia. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is also within the normal range and not directly related to the client's left-sided heart failure.

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