Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?

• A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
• B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
• C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
• D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.

2. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

3. The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
• B. A 5-year-old with a broken arm
• C. A 7-year-old with minor abrasions
• D. A 9-year-old with a twisted ankle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

4. The client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is required to lower potassium levels. Choice B, serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, is elevated but expected in ESRD due to impaired kidney function. Choice C, serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and not typically a priority in this situation. Choice D, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, is slightly low but not an immediate concern for a client scheduled for hemodialysis unless significantly lower and causing severe symptoms.

5. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum triglycerides
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should monitor serum triglycerides closely. Acute pancreatitis can lead to fat malabsorption, making the client susceptible to hypertriglyceridemia. Monitoring serum triglycerides is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperlipidemia. While monitoring serum potassium, glucose, and calcium levels is also essential in various conditions, in this scenario, the primary concern is the risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia due to fat malabsorption.

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