Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?

• A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
• B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
• C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
• D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
• D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.

4. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Slide the stethoscope across the sternum.
• B. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site.
• C. Listen with the bell at the same location.
• D. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, the nurse should listen at the same location using the bell first. This allows for the accurate identification of low-pitched sounds. Moving the stethoscope across the sternum (Choice A) or to the mitral site (Choice B) would not be the initial actions to assess for an S3 heart sound. Observing the cardiac telemetry monitor (Choice D) is not relevant for assessing S3 heart sounds, as it does not provide direct auscultation of heart sounds.

5. A client with a spinal cord injury is admitted to the ICU. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia.
• B. Implement measures to prevent pressure ulcers.
• C. Perform passive range of motion exercises.
• D. Ensure that the client is turned every two hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition that can occur in clients with spinal cord injuries, especially those with injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure, pounding headache, profuse sweating, and flushing above the level of injury. Failure to recognize and treat autonomic dysreflexia promptly can lead to seizures, stroke, or even death. Therefore, monitoring for signs of autonomic dysreflexia is crucial in clients with spinal cord injuries. Choices B, C, and D are important interventions too, but in the context of a spinal cord injury, monitoring for autonomic dysreflexia takes priority due to its potentially life-threatening nature.

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