Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Assess the client's neurological status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism who has not been responsive to medications is admitted for evaluation. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Review the client's medication history.
• C. Prepare the client for thyroid function tests.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a client with hyperthyroidism is not responding to medications, the nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider. This is important because the client may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting the treatment plan or exploring alternative therapies. Reviewing the client's medication history (choice B) may be relevant but not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider. While preparing the client for thyroid function tests (choice C) may be necessary as part of the evaluation process, it is not the most immediate action to take. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not directly related to the non-responsiveness of medications in hyperthyroidism and is not a priority in this situation.

3. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.

4. A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.
• B. Discontinue the medication and follow up with a healthcare provider.
• C. Increase fluid intake and monitor urine color.
• D. Continue taking the medication and report any changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.' The symptoms described by the client, including nausea, dark-colored urine, and yellowish skin, are indicative of possible liver toxicity, a serious side effect of pioglitazone. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the condition and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B advises discontinuing the medication without seeking immediate medical assistance, which could delay necessary treatment; C focuses solely on increasing fluid intake and monitoring urine color, overlooking the urgency of the situation; and D suggests continuing the medication when prompt evaluation is crucial in this scenario.

5. The nurse needs to add a medication to a liter of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) that is already infusing into a client. At what location should the nurse inject the medication?

• A. Medication port
• B. IV drip chamber
• C. Y-site connector
• D. At the hub of the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the medication port. When adding medication to an already infusing IV solution, it should be done through the medication port to ensure direct delivery into the bloodstream without interrupting the primary IV line. Injecting the medication into the IV drip chamber, Y-site connector, or at the hub of the IV catheter can lead to dilution, inaccurate dosing, or potential blockages in the IV line, which can compromise the effectiveness of the medication and patient safety.

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